Dear Readers
As I explained in my previous posts infinitives are a form of non-finite verbs and they are often preceded by the particle to . Examples: to come ,to go ,to sleep etc
The concept of infinitives is borrowed from Latin where it is a kind of verbal nouns., sharing the characteristics of a noun and verbs .
When we use a to-infinitive as the subject and object of a verb , we treat it as a verbal noun When the characteristics of a verb are dominant , infinitives can be modified by adverbs like any verb . Examples
To work is to worship
Both to work and to worship have the meaning of nouns .To work is the subject of the verb is and to worship is its complement.
He wanted to leave immediately.
Here, to leave has the characteristics of a verb and , therefore, it has been modified by the adverb immediately .
What is a split infinitive ?
A split infinitive occurs when to-infinitive is more like a verb than a noun and an adverb comes in between to and the verb example : to successfully solve the problem
Is split infinitive a mistake?
In the early Middle English period -en was the infinitive marker. Later to was used before the verb as an additional infinitive marker. eg . to seeken In course of time -en was dropped because to served the purpose any way Originally ,to had a directional sense But it continued to be used even after the directional sense was dropped
Thus English came to have a two-word infinitive Unfortunately, traditional grammarians conceptualized it as a solid , indivisible entity by analogy with Latin -in which infinitive consists of a single word .So they considered insertion of adverbs between to and the verb as 'SPLITTING '" the infinitive ! .If they had called the practice misplacing of adverbs it would have made better sense
Adverbs generally follow verbs in English as in Latin .In course of time adverbs came to be used before verbs . These adverbs had a different meaning when used before verbs.This is the way English grew into a rich and versatile language .
Please note the adverbs that "split" infinitives are often short ones and they carry emphasis . I think that the so-called split infinitive is a big step in the growth of English and it is not to be denounced as a solecism .
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Saturday, August 8, 2009
Thursday, July 23, 2009
to-infinitives and their uses
Dear readers
I have already explained non-finite verbs in my previous post. Now I will discuss infinitives which is the most frequently used non-finite verb form in E nglish .Infinitives are found in two forms , to-infinitives and bare infinitives According to scholars the particle to originally had a directional sense , but it continued to be used even after the directional sense got dropped.Traditional grammarians look upon to as an integral part of the infinitive , and so they regard split infinitive as a mistake .But split infinitive is no longer regarded as a mistake
uses of to-infinitive
1 Infinitive is a concept borrowed from Latin grammar . In Latin it is a kind of verbal noun .In English too this Latin sense is retained when to-infinitive is used as subject of a verb and as the object of a verb . Example:
To err is human (subject of the verb )
She likes to dance (object of the verb)
Please note the use of to-infinitive as subject is somewhat rare in modern English Its use as object is very frequent indeed.
2 to-infinitive is often used as an adjective which post -modifies a noun .Examples
I had no work to do
The next guest to arrive was the District Collector
t3 To -nfinitives are often used for adjective complementation . Look at thesre sentences
She was happy to come
To-come complements the adjective by stating the cause .
She is hard to please
This kind of complementation is possible only when the object of the transitive verb ,please, is the same as the subject , she . Other examples
English is easy to learn
Sita is difficult to convince .
4 To-infinitive is used as adverbial clause of purpose
We eat to live
She is working hard to get a promotion
5 To-infinitive is also used for object complementation Example
I asked him to leave
She invited me to attend the party .
This construction , Subject +transitive verb + direct object+to-infinitive , is a frequent one in English
I Will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
I have already explained non-finite verbs in my previous post. Now I will discuss infinitives which is the most frequently used non-finite verb form in E nglish .Infinitives are found in two forms , to-infinitives and bare infinitives According to scholars the particle to originally had a directional sense , but it continued to be used even after the directional sense got dropped.Traditional grammarians look upon to as an integral part of the infinitive , and so they regard split infinitive as a mistake .But split infinitive is no longer regarded as a mistake
uses of to-infinitive
1 Infinitive is a concept borrowed from Latin grammar . In Latin it is a kind of verbal noun .In English too this Latin sense is retained when to-infinitive is used as subject of a verb and as the object of a verb . Example:
To err is human (subject of the verb )
She likes to dance (object of the verb)
Please note the use of to-infinitive as subject is somewhat rare in modern English Its use as object is very frequent indeed.
2 to-infinitive is often used as an adjective which post -modifies a noun .Examples
I had no work to do
The next guest to arrive was the District Collector
t3 To -nfinitives are often used for adjective complementation . Look at thesre sentences
She was happy to come
To-come complements the adjective by stating the cause .
She is hard to please
This kind of complementation is possible only when the object of the transitive verb ,please, is the same as the subject , she . Other examples
English is easy to learn
Sita is difficult to convince .
4 To-infinitive is used as adverbial clause of purpose
We eat to live
She is working hard to get a promotion
5 To-infinitive is also used for object complementation Example
I asked him to leave
She invited me to attend the party .
This construction , Subject +transitive verb + direct object+to-infinitive , is a frequent one in English
I Will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Wednesday, July 15, 2009
Non-finite Verbs
Dear readers,
In my previous post I discussed finite verbs .In this post I propose to discuss non-finite verbs .Finite verbs . as you have seen , provide information about the number and person of the subject and the tense of the sentence .Non-finite verbs ,on the contrary, merely give idea of the action Look at these sentences :
1Little Johnny wants to play .
2I let her go .
3She has written a poem .
4They are playing tennis .
Thus non-finite verbs come in various forms In sentence1 it comes in the form of to-infinitive In sentence2 it comes in the form of bare infinitive .in sentence3 it comes in the form of past participle and in sentence 4 it comes in the form of present participle .
I will discuss to- infinitive in detail in my next post
Thank you
In my previous post I discussed finite verbs .In this post I propose to discuss non-finite verbs .Finite verbs . as you have seen , provide information about the number and person of the subject and the tense of the sentence .Non-finite verbs ,on the contrary, merely give idea of the action Look at these sentences :
1Little Johnny wants to play .
2I let her go .
3She has written a poem .
4They are playing tennis .
Thus non-finite verbs come in various forms In sentence1 it comes in the form of to-infinitive In sentence2 it comes in the form of bare infinitive .in sentence3 it comes in the form of past participle and in sentence 4 it comes in the form of present participle .
I will discuss to- infinitive in detail in my next post
Thank you
Tuesday, July 7, 2009
Finite Verbs
Dear Readers,
In this post I wish to discuss the concept of finite verbs .A finite verb is a verb which shows a particular tense, person or number. Look at the verb -form goes.It shows a particular tense , doesn't it ? Simple Present Tense . It shows a particular number, too. The Singular Number. Similarly, the verb-form am indicates a particular person --first person singular . ,and a particular tense as well .
Please remember that the concept of finite verbs is borrowed from Latin grammar .It has only limited application in English grammar . It lacks explicitness when applied to English .
In Latin there are no compound verb-forms as in English . In English ,except simple present tense and simple past tense , all other tenses make use of compound verb-forms .The firsr element of a verb expression may be taken as the finite verb . Example
I am writing a letter.
In this sentence the verb expression am writing has two elements The first element am is the finite verb .because it shows a particulat person and tense . Writing , on the contrary , shows no particular person or tense . It is ,therefore. called a non-finite verb .
As I have said the concept of finite verbs has only limited application in English grammar . It is highly relevant in Latin grammar.because theLatin finite verb provides a lot of information. . In English grammar it is still useful from the point of view of concord . Finite verbs change their forms according to the number and person of the subject . In compound verb-forms there may be two ,or sometimes more than two, auxiliary verbs . The first auxiliary is the finite verb and it agrees with the subject in number and person . Look at the following sentences
*I am writing a letter .
*He is writing a letter.
* They are writing letters .
*She was writing a letter.(past tense )
*I was writing a letter(. past tense)
*They were writing letters .(past tense )
The finite verbs indicate number and person of the bubject . and also the tense .The use of was in in fourth and fifth sentences may be noted -was shows no particular person!
When lexical verbs are used without auxiliaries they behave like finite verbs . --They inflect for number and tense .Past tense forms of lexical verbs, however, do not inflect for number and person The only exception is the verb beIt alone has two separate forms according to number --was and were.
It is clear that the concept of finite verbs does not fit well into English grammar . The concept of operator has far greater application in English grammar .
Dear readers , I will discuss infinitives in my next post
Thank you
In this post I wish to discuss the concept of finite verbs .A finite verb is a verb which shows a particular tense, person or number. Look at the verb -form goes.It shows a particular tense , doesn't it ? Simple Present Tense . It shows a particular number, too. The Singular Number. Similarly, the verb-form am indicates a particular person --first person singular . ,and a particular tense as well .
Please remember that the concept of finite verbs is borrowed from Latin grammar .It has only limited application in English grammar . It lacks explicitness when applied to English .
In Latin there are no compound verb-forms as in English . In English ,except simple present tense and simple past tense , all other tenses make use of compound verb-forms .The firsr element of a verb expression may be taken as the finite verb . Example
I am writing a letter.
In this sentence the verb expression am writing has two elements The first element am is the finite verb .because it shows a particulat person and tense . Writing , on the contrary , shows no particular person or tense . It is ,therefore. called a non-finite verb .
As I have said the concept of finite verbs has only limited application in English grammar . It is highly relevant in Latin grammar.because theLatin finite verb provides a lot of information. . In English grammar it is still useful from the point of view of concord . Finite verbs change their forms according to the number and person of the subject . In compound verb-forms there may be two ,or sometimes more than two, auxiliary verbs . The first auxiliary is the finite verb and it agrees with the subject in number and person . Look at the following sentences
*I am writing a letter .
*He is writing a letter.
* They are writing letters .
*She was writing a letter.(past tense )
*I was writing a letter(. past tense)
*They were writing letters .(past tense )
The finite verbs indicate number and person of the bubject . and also the tense .The use of was in in fourth and fifth sentences may be noted -was shows no particular person!
When lexical verbs are used without auxiliaries they behave like finite verbs . --They inflect for number and tense .Past tense forms of lexical verbs, however, do not inflect for number and person The only exception is the verb beIt alone has two separate forms according to number --was and were.
It is clear that the concept of finite verbs does not fit well into English grammar . The concept of operator has far greater application in English grammar .
Dear readers , I will discuss infinitives in my next post
Thank you
Monday, June 22, 2009
Frequency Adverbs : Frequently Asked Questions
What are Frequency Adverbs?
Frequency Adverbs are a group mof adverbs which answer the question: How often?Examples are : never, always, often, seldom , rarely etc . They show similarity in grammatical behavor in sentences .
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs in sentences ?
Frequency Adverbs come just before main verbs in sentences . When a compound verb-form is used , they come between the auxiliary and the main verb . When there are two auxiliaries, they come after the first auxiliary . Look at these examples :
*He never comes late for work.
*He has never told a lie to anyone .
* He has always been trying to win her favor .
What is the position of the Frequency Ad verbs when the verb is the lexical verb be ?
The lexical verb be takes several forms like is, are, am etc . In English sentences Frequency Adverbs come immediately after the lexical be . Look at these examples :
*Indian women are always committed to their families>
* Mothers are sendom strict with their sons >
Do Frequency Adverbs ever come at the beginning of sentences?
Yes, they do, sometimes . When they are used at the beginning of sentences for emphasis , subject and operator exchange positions . This is called subject-operato inversion .The term operator is used in modern grammar to signify the first auxiliary , or the dummy auxiliary do or the lexical verb be . Look at these examples
* We seldom see a comet .
Seldom do we see a comet .
*He has never seen an elephant .
Never has he seen an elephant .
He was never a trusted friend of mine .
Never was he a trusted friend of mine .
Please note that always is not fronted like other frequency adverbs
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs when modal auxiliaries used to , have ti, and ought to are used ?
Strictly speaking , used to and have to are not modal auxiliaries . They may be called substitute modal auxiliaries . Frequency Adverbs come before these auxiliaries . However, ought to behaves somewhat differently . In conversational English it behaves like used to and have to . but in formal English frequency adverbs come between ought and to as in the sentence "You ought always to mix with good people ".
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Frequency Adverbs are a group mof adverbs which answer the question: How often?Examples are : never, always, often, seldom , rarely etc . They show similarity in grammatical behavor in sentences .
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs in sentences ?
Frequency Adverbs come just before main verbs in sentences . When a compound verb-form is used , they come between the auxiliary and the main verb . When there are two auxiliaries, they come after the first auxiliary . Look at these examples :
*He never comes late for work.
*He has never told a lie to anyone .
* He has always been trying to win her favor .
What is the position of the Frequency Ad verbs when the verb is the lexical verb be ?
The lexical verb be takes several forms like is, are, am etc . In English sentences Frequency Adverbs come immediately after the lexical be . Look at these examples :
*Indian women are always committed to their families>
* Mothers are sendom strict with their sons >
Do Frequency Adverbs ever come at the beginning of sentences?
Yes, they do, sometimes . When they are used at the beginning of sentences for emphasis , subject and operator exchange positions . This is called subject-operato inversion .The term operator is used in modern grammar to signify the first auxiliary , or the dummy auxiliary do or the lexical verb be . Look at these examples
* We seldom see a comet .
Seldom do we see a comet .
*He has never seen an elephant .
Never has he seen an elephant .
He was never a trusted friend of mine .
Never was he a trusted friend of mine .
Please note that always is not fronted like other frequency adverbs
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs when modal auxiliaries used to , have ti, and ought to are used ?
Strictly speaking , used to and have to are not modal auxiliaries . They may be called substitute modal auxiliaries . Frequency Adverbs come before these auxiliaries . However, ought to behaves somewhat differently . In conversational English it behaves like used to and have to . but in formal English frequency adverbs come between ought and to as in the sentence "You ought always to mix with good people ".
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Friday, June 12, 2009
Correlative Conjunctions & Proximity Concord
There are a few conjunctions in English known as correlative conjunctions .They are : neither...nor, either...or , both...and , not only....but also etc .
While using these correlative conjunctions students of English are often faced with the problem of subject-verb agreement . Correlative conjunction connect two or sometimes more than two pronouns or nouns in subject position,and the problem confronting the student is to make the verb agree with which subject .
Look at these two examples
1. Neither you nor I am responsible for this
Here the correlative conjunction neither...nor connects two pronouns , you (second person) and I (first person singular) In such cases we apply the Principle of Proximity Concord . According to this Principle the verb agrees with the subject just preceding it . Hence, we chose am and not are
2. Neither the Principal nor the teachers were present on the occasion
The Principle of Proximity Concord can be applied here ,too . The noun-subject just preceding the verb is the plural noun teachers and hence were is used and not was .
Students may note that when two nouns (both third persons) are connected with neither...nor the plural noun always follows the singular noun . and not the other way round . Similarly, First Person Singular I always follows the Second Person pronoun you in constructions using neither...nor and either...or
Dear readers . I will discuss a few more examples of subject -verb agreement in my next post
Thank you
While using these correlative conjunctions students of English are often faced with the problem of subject-verb agreement . Correlative conjunction connect two or sometimes more than two pronouns or nouns in subject position,and the problem confronting the student is to make the verb agree with which subject .
Look at these two examples
1. Neither you nor I am responsible for this
Here the correlative conjunction neither...nor connects two pronouns , you (second person) and I (first person singular) In such cases we apply the Principle of Proximity Concord . According to this Principle the verb agrees with the subject just preceding it . Hence, we chose am and not are
2. Neither the Principal nor the teachers were present on the occasion
The Principle of Proximity Concord can be applied here ,too . The noun-subject just preceding the verb is the plural noun teachers and hence were is used and not was .
Students may note that when two nouns (both third persons) are connected with neither...nor the plural noun always follows the singular noun . and not the other way round . Similarly, First Person Singular I always follows the Second Person pronoun you in constructions using neither...nor and either...or
Dear readers . I will discuss a few more examples of subject -verb agreement in my next post
Thank you
Saturday, June 6, 2009
Subject - Verb Agreement
Dear Readers,
Subiect-Verb Agreement is yet another slippery area for ESL learners . What is subject-verb agreement? This simple rule can be stated as follows :
" The verb shall agree with the subject in number and in person"
It sounds so simple! Doesn't it ? The problem for most ESL learners is to determine which word or words constitute the subject of the senntence . then they have to determine the number of the subject , whether the subject is singular or plural . The problem is complicated by the fact that number is sometimes determined by meaning and sometimes by form! Take this sentence as an example
More than one student has been chosen for the scholarship.
\
The singular verb has is bound to confuse ESL learners . The subject is definitely a plural one as far as meaning goes . It is a case where number is determined by form rather than by meaning . Now look at this sentence
"One of the boys has been chosen for the awars"
the verb has agrees with the subject "one of the boys" , and this is a case where number is determined by meaning .
Collective Nounns like committee , jury couple ,team etc constitute another source of confusion for ESL learners . These nouns are sometimes singular and sometimes plural , depending on the way the speaker perceives them . Thus committee can be singular when the speaker perceives it as a body of persons working together in unison , and it can be plural when he perceives it as a body of persons divided . Look at these examples
The committee has submitted its report to the government
The committee are divided in their findings
It would seem that the tendency of the native speakers of English is to use a singular verb unless there is a strong case for treating the subject as plural Take for example the proverb
Time and tide waits for no man
The singular verb waits suggests that the words time and tide constitute a single subject , They have the same contextual meaning. . Tey are united in one overwhelming aspect - they do not wait for anybody . The singularity of the subject is reinforced by alliteration . Take another example
Slow and steady wins the race
The singularity of the subject is again reinforced by alliteration .
Thus the English language makes creative use of the principle of subject-verb agreement. to enrich the meaning of discourses.
I will discuss the various aspects of subject-verb agreement in my next posts
Thank you
.
Subiect-Verb Agreement is yet another slippery area for ESL learners . What is subject-verb agreement? This simple rule can be stated as follows :
" The verb shall agree with the subject in number and in person"
It sounds so simple! Doesn't it ? The problem for most ESL learners is to determine which word or words constitute the subject of the senntence . then they have to determine the number of the subject , whether the subject is singular or plural . The problem is complicated by the fact that number is sometimes determined by meaning and sometimes by form! Take this sentence as an example
More than one student has been chosen for the scholarship.
\
The singular verb has is bound to confuse ESL learners . The subject is definitely a plural one as far as meaning goes . It is a case where number is determined by form rather than by meaning . Now look at this sentence
"One of the boys has been chosen for the awars"
the verb has agrees with the subject "one of the boys" , and this is a case where number is determined by meaning .
Collective Nounns like committee , jury couple ,team etc constitute another source of confusion for ESL learners . These nouns are sometimes singular and sometimes plural , depending on the way the speaker perceives them . Thus committee can be singular when the speaker perceives it as a body of persons working together in unison , and it can be plural when he perceives it as a body of persons divided . Look at these examples
The committee has submitted its report to the government
The committee are divided in their findings
It would seem that the tendency of the native speakers of English is to use a singular verb unless there is a strong case for treating the subject as plural Take for example the proverb
Time and tide waits for no man
The singular verb waits suggests that the words time and tide constitute a single subject , They have the same contextual meaning. . Tey are united in one overwhelming aspect - they do not wait for anybody . The singularity of the subject is reinforced by alliteration . Take another example
Slow and steady wins the race
The singularity of the subject is again reinforced by alliteration .
Thus the English language makes creative use of the principle of subject-verb agreement. to enrich the meaning of discourses.
I will discuss the various aspects of subject-verb agreement in my next posts
Thank you
.
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