Dear Readers,
As you know, the definite article "the" is the most frequently used word in the English language Therefore, every learner ought to know how to use the definite article . Remember, this short word has tremendous significance from the point of view of discourse !
'The" coming before a noun indicates an anaphoric reference . In other words , after introducing an object with an indefinite article a/an ,we can refer to the same object later in the discourse in an economical way by simply putting "the" before the object .
Look at this passage
"I bought a necklace at Cochin . I brought it home and showed it to my cousin. She took a fancy to the necklace and wanted to buy a necklace like the one I had bought . I told her that she didn"t need to buy one .I had bought the necklace as a wedding gift to her ! "
The use of "the" has an anaphoric reference and it saves us the labor of repeating "which I had bought at Cochin" as a post-modifier after the noun "necklace"
Sometimes "the" before a noun shows that it is the only one of its kind known to or understood by the speaker/listener.. An important thing to bear in mind in this connection is that language is a system based on context and shared conventions between the speaker and the listener.
Look at this sentence
"The Queen is not receiving visitors today "
Both the speaker and the listener know the identity of the queen,. Other examples
*The key is missing .
*The telephone is ringing .
*Where is the thermometer?
The use of "the" based on conventions (not on hard-and-fast rules)
"The" is conventionally used before the names of
rivers(the Nile)
mountain ranges (the Himalayas)
oceans ( the Atlantic )
deserts (the Sahara )and
seas (the Arabian sea )
It is used before the official names of countries (theUnited States of America ) It is omitted before proper nouns, that is , the names of particular persons and places But it can be used when proper nouns are used as common nouns ! examples
Martin Luther King is the Gandhi of America .
Alleppey is the Venice of the East .
Enough for definite article ! I will continue the discussion ti my next entry
Thank You!
Saturday, August 22, 2009
Friday, August 14, 2009
Bare Infinitives
Dear Readers,
You may have noticed that one of the most commonly used structures in English is
Subject + transitive verb + direct object +to-infinitive
Example
She asked me to help her
But there are a few verbs in English which demand the structure
subject + transitive verb + direct verb + bare infinitive
Bare infinitives are infinitive forms , but without the usual to particle preceding them .
Why do some verbs behave in this aberrant way?No satisfactory explanation has been forthcoming yet . These verbs are
let, bid, make (causative use ) help(chiefly in U.S English)
Examples
* I let her go early .
*The King bade the soldiers release the prisoner .
* He made her sign the agreement .
*I helped her organize the birthday party..
Bare Infinitives are used after modal auxiliaries like will, shall, can, may, must, could, might , would , should etc Examples
*He will come if you invite him.
*i shall go to Cochin tomorrow .
*She can help you .
*The train may arrive late .
*We must be kind to beggars .
*I could swim when I was young .
*It might rain at any time this season.
*She would play tennis when she was at school.
* We should respect our teachers .
DUMMY AUXILIARIES like do, does and did are followed by bare infinitives . These auxiliaries carry inflection and tense , thus enabling the verbs to remain in their base forms .. Examples
* Does she play tennis ?(both inflection and tense carried by does )
*Do they speak English ?(do carries the tense of the verb )
*Did the plane take off on time ?((did carries the tense of the verb )
Enough for bare infinitives! I will continue the discussion in my next entry .
Thank you
You may have noticed that one of the most commonly used structures in English is
Subject + transitive verb + direct object +to-infinitive
Example
She asked me to help her
But there are a few verbs in English which demand the structure
subject + transitive verb + direct verb + bare infinitive
Bare infinitives are infinitive forms , but without the usual to particle preceding them .
Why do some verbs behave in this aberrant way?No satisfactory explanation has been forthcoming yet . These verbs are
let, bid, make (causative use ) help(chiefly in U.S English)
Examples
* I let her go early .
*The King bade the soldiers release the prisoner .
* He made her sign the agreement .
*I helped her organize the birthday party..
Bare Infinitives are used after modal auxiliaries like will, shall, can, may, must, could, might , would , should etc Examples
*He will come if you invite him.
*i shall go to Cochin tomorrow .
*She can help you .
*The train may arrive late .
*We must be kind to beggars .
*I could swim when I was young .
*It might rain at any time this season.
*She would play tennis when she was at school.
* We should respect our teachers .
DUMMY AUXILIARIES like do, does and did are followed by bare infinitives . These auxiliaries carry inflection and tense , thus enabling the verbs to remain in their base forms .. Examples
* Does she play tennis ?(both inflection and tense carried by does )
*Do they speak English ?(do carries the tense of the verb )
*Did the plane take off on time ?((did carries the tense of the verb )
Enough for bare infinitives! I will continue the discussion in my next entry .
Thank you
Saturday, August 8, 2009
Split Infinitives or Misplaced Adverbs?
Dear Readers
As I explained in my previous posts infinitives are a form of non-finite verbs and they are often preceded by the particle to . Examples: to come ,to go ,to sleep etc
The concept of infinitives is borrowed from Latin where it is a kind of verbal nouns., sharing the characteristics of a noun and verbs .
When we use a to-infinitive as the subject and object of a verb , we treat it as a verbal noun When the characteristics of a verb are dominant , infinitives can be modified by adverbs like any verb . Examples
To work is to worship
Both to work and to worship have the meaning of nouns .To work is the subject of the verb is and to worship is its complement.
He wanted to leave immediately.
Here, to leave has the characteristics of a verb and , therefore, it has been modified by the adverb immediately .
What is a split infinitive ?
A split infinitive occurs when to-infinitive is more like a verb than a noun and an adverb comes in between to and the verb example : to successfully solve the problem
Is split infinitive a mistake?
In the early Middle English period -en was the infinitive marker. Later to was used before the verb as an additional infinitive marker. eg . to seeken In course of time -en was dropped because to served the purpose any way Originally ,to had a directional sense But it continued to be used even after the directional sense was dropped
Thus English came to have a two-word infinitive Unfortunately, traditional grammarians conceptualized it as a solid , indivisible entity by analogy with Latin -in which infinitive consists of a single word .So they considered insertion of adverbs between to and the verb as 'SPLITTING '" the infinitive ! .If they had called the practice misplacing of adverbs it would have made better sense
Adverbs generally follow verbs in English as in Latin .In course of time adverbs came to be used before verbs . These adverbs had a different meaning when used before verbs.This is the way English grew into a rich and versatile language .
Please note the adverbs that "split" infinitives are often short ones and they carry emphasis . I think that the so-called split infinitive is a big step in the growth of English and it is not to be denounced as a solecism .
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
As I explained in my previous posts infinitives are a form of non-finite verbs and they are often preceded by the particle to . Examples: to come ,to go ,to sleep etc
The concept of infinitives is borrowed from Latin where it is a kind of verbal nouns., sharing the characteristics of a noun and verbs .
When we use a to-infinitive as the subject and object of a verb , we treat it as a verbal noun When the characteristics of a verb are dominant , infinitives can be modified by adverbs like any verb . Examples
To work is to worship
Both to work and to worship have the meaning of nouns .To work is the subject of the verb is and to worship is its complement.
He wanted to leave immediately.
Here, to leave has the characteristics of a verb and , therefore, it has been modified by the adverb immediately .
What is a split infinitive ?
A split infinitive occurs when to-infinitive is more like a verb than a noun and an adverb comes in between to and the verb example : to successfully solve the problem
Is split infinitive a mistake?
In the early Middle English period -en was the infinitive marker. Later to was used before the verb as an additional infinitive marker. eg . to seeken In course of time -en was dropped because to served the purpose any way Originally ,to had a directional sense But it continued to be used even after the directional sense was dropped
Thus English came to have a two-word infinitive Unfortunately, traditional grammarians conceptualized it as a solid , indivisible entity by analogy with Latin -in which infinitive consists of a single word .So they considered insertion of adverbs between to and the verb as 'SPLITTING '" the infinitive ! .If they had called the practice misplacing of adverbs it would have made better sense
Adverbs generally follow verbs in English as in Latin .In course of time adverbs came to be used before verbs . These adverbs had a different meaning when used before verbs.This is the way English grew into a rich and versatile language .
Please note the adverbs that "split" infinitives are often short ones and they carry emphasis . I think that the so-called split infinitive is a big step in the growth of English and it is not to be denounced as a solecism .
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Thursday, July 23, 2009
to-infinitives and their uses
Dear readers
I have already explained non-finite verbs in my previous post. Now I will discuss infinitives which is the most frequently used non-finite verb form in E nglish .Infinitives are found in two forms , to-infinitives and bare infinitives According to scholars the particle to originally had a directional sense , but it continued to be used even after the directional sense got dropped.Traditional grammarians look upon to as an integral part of the infinitive , and so they regard split infinitive as a mistake .But split infinitive is no longer regarded as a mistake
uses of to-infinitive
1 Infinitive is a concept borrowed from Latin grammar . In Latin it is a kind of verbal noun .In English too this Latin sense is retained when to-infinitive is used as subject of a verb and as the object of a verb . Example:
To err is human (subject of the verb )
She likes to dance (object of the verb)
Please note the use of to-infinitive as subject is somewhat rare in modern English Its use as object is very frequent indeed.
2 to-infinitive is often used as an adjective which post -modifies a noun .Examples
I had no work to do
The next guest to arrive was the District Collector
t3 To -nfinitives are often used for adjective complementation . Look at thesre sentences
She was happy to come
To-come complements the adjective by stating the cause .
She is hard to please
This kind of complementation is possible only when the object of the transitive verb ,please, is the same as the subject , she . Other examples
English is easy to learn
Sita is difficult to convince .
4 To-infinitive is used as adverbial clause of purpose
We eat to live
She is working hard to get a promotion
5 To-infinitive is also used for object complementation Example
I asked him to leave
She invited me to attend the party .
This construction , Subject +transitive verb + direct object+to-infinitive , is a frequent one in English
I Will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
I have already explained non-finite verbs in my previous post. Now I will discuss infinitives which is the most frequently used non-finite verb form in E nglish .Infinitives are found in two forms , to-infinitives and bare infinitives According to scholars the particle to originally had a directional sense , but it continued to be used even after the directional sense got dropped.Traditional grammarians look upon to as an integral part of the infinitive , and so they regard split infinitive as a mistake .But split infinitive is no longer regarded as a mistake
uses of to-infinitive
1 Infinitive is a concept borrowed from Latin grammar . In Latin it is a kind of verbal noun .In English too this Latin sense is retained when to-infinitive is used as subject of a verb and as the object of a verb . Example:
To err is human (subject of the verb )
She likes to dance (object of the verb)
Please note the use of to-infinitive as subject is somewhat rare in modern English Its use as object is very frequent indeed.
2 to-infinitive is often used as an adjective which post -modifies a noun .Examples
I had no work to do
The next guest to arrive was the District Collector
t3 To -nfinitives are often used for adjective complementation . Look at thesre sentences
She was happy to come
To-come complements the adjective by stating the cause .
She is hard to please
This kind of complementation is possible only when the object of the transitive verb ,please, is the same as the subject , she . Other examples
English is easy to learn
Sita is difficult to convince .
4 To-infinitive is used as adverbial clause of purpose
We eat to live
She is working hard to get a promotion
5 To-infinitive is also used for object complementation Example
I asked him to leave
She invited me to attend the party .
This construction , Subject +transitive verb + direct object+to-infinitive , is a frequent one in English
I Will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Wednesday, July 15, 2009
Non-finite Verbs
Dear readers,
In my previous post I discussed finite verbs .In this post I propose to discuss non-finite verbs .Finite verbs . as you have seen , provide information about the number and person of the subject and the tense of the sentence .Non-finite verbs ,on the contrary, merely give idea of the action Look at these sentences :
1Little Johnny wants to play .
2I let her go .
3She has written a poem .
4They are playing tennis .
Thus non-finite verbs come in various forms In sentence1 it comes in the form of to-infinitive In sentence2 it comes in the form of bare infinitive .in sentence3 it comes in the form of past participle and in sentence 4 it comes in the form of present participle .
I will discuss to- infinitive in detail in my next post
Thank you
In my previous post I discussed finite verbs .In this post I propose to discuss non-finite verbs .Finite verbs . as you have seen , provide information about the number and person of the subject and the tense of the sentence .Non-finite verbs ,on the contrary, merely give idea of the action Look at these sentences :
1Little Johnny wants to play .
2I let her go .
3She has written a poem .
4They are playing tennis .
Thus non-finite verbs come in various forms In sentence1 it comes in the form of to-infinitive In sentence2 it comes in the form of bare infinitive .in sentence3 it comes in the form of past participle and in sentence 4 it comes in the form of present participle .
I will discuss to- infinitive in detail in my next post
Thank you
Tuesday, July 7, 2009
Finite Verbs
Dear Readers,
In this post I wish to discuss the concept of finite verbs .A finite verb is a verb which shows a particular tense, person or number. Look at the verb -form goes.It shows a particular tense , doesn't it ? Simple Present Tense . It shows a particular number, too. The Singular Number. Similarly, the verb-form am indicates a particular person --first person singular . ,and a particular tense as well .
Please remember that the concept of finite verbs is borrowed from Latin grammar .It has only limited application in English grammar . It lacks explicitness when applied to English .
In Latin there are no compound verb-forms as in English . In English ,except simple present tense and simple past tense , all other tenses make use of compound verb-forms .The firsr element of a verb expression may be taken as the finite verb . Example
I am writing a letter.
In this sentence the verb expression am writing has two elements The first element am is the finite verb .because it shows a particulat person and tense . Writing , on the contrary , shows no particular person or tense . It is ,therefore. called a non-finite verb .
As I have said the concept of finite verbs has only limited application in English grammar . It is highly relevant in Latin grammar.because theLatin finite verb provides a lot of information. . In English grammar it is still useful from the point of view of concord . Finite verbs change their forms according to the number and person of the subject . In compound verb-forms there may be two ,or sometimes more than two, auxiliary verbs . The first auxiliary is the finite verb and it agrees with the subject in number and person . Look at the following sentences
*I am writing a letter .
*He is writing a letter.
* They are writing letters .
*She was writing a letter.(past tense )
*I was writing a letter(. past tense)
*They were writing letters .(past tense )
The finite verbs indicate number and person of the bubject . and also the tense .The use of was in in fourth and fifth sentences may be noted -was shows no particular person!
When lexical verbs are used without auxiliaries they behave like finite verbs . --They inflect for number and tense .Past tense forms of lexical verbs, however, do not inflect for number and person The only exception is the verb beIt alone has two separate forms according to number --was and were.
It is clear that the concept of finite verbs does not fit well into English grammar . The concept of operator has far greater application in English grammar .
Dear readers , I will discuss infinitives in my next post
Thank you
In this post I wish to discuss the concept of finite verbs .A finite verb is a verb which shows a particular tense, person or number. Look at the verb -form goes.It shows a particular tense , doesn't it ? Simple Present Tense . It shows a particular number, too. The Singular Number. Similarly, the verb-form am indicates a particular person --first person singular . ,and a particular tense as well .
Please remember that the concept of finite verbs is borrowed from Latin grammar .It has only limited application in English grammar . It lacks explicitness when applied to English .
In Latin there are no compound verb-forms as in English . In English ,except simple present tense and simple past tense , all other tenses make use of compound verb-forms .The firsr element of a verb expression may be taken as the finite verb . Example
I am writing a letter.
In this sentence the verb expression am writing has two elements The first element am is the finite verb .because it shows a particulat person and tense . Writing , on the contrary , shows no particular person or tense . It is ,therefore. called a non-finite verb .
As I have said the concept of finite verbs has only limited application in English grammar . It is highly relevant in Latin grammar.because theLatin finite verb provides a lot of information. . In English grammar it is still useful from the point of view of concord . Finite verbs change their forms according to the number and person of the subject . In compound verb-forms there may be two ,or sometimes more than two, auxiliary verbs . The first auxiliary is the finite verb and it agrees with the subject in number and person . Look at the following sentences
*I am writing a letter .
*He is writing a letter.
* They are writing letters .
*She was writing a letter.(past tense )
*I was writing a letter(. past tense)
*They were writing letters .(past tense )
The finite verbs indicate number and person of the bubject . and also the tense .The use of was in in fourth and fifth sentences may be noted -was shows no particular person!
When lexical verbs are used without auxiliaries they behave like finite verbs . --They inflect for number and tense .Past tense forms of lexical verbs, however, do not inflect for number and person The only exception is the verb beIt alone has two separate forms according to number --was and were.
It is clear that the concept of finite verbs does not fit well into English grammar . The concept of operator has far greater application in English grammar .
Dear readers , I will discuss infinitives in my next post
Thank you
Monday, June 22, 2009
Frequency Adverbs : Frequently Asked Questions
What are Frequency Adverbs?
Frequency Adverbs are a group mof adverbs which answer the question: How often?Examples are : never, always, often, seldom , rarely etc . They show similarity in grammatical behavor in sentences .
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs in sentences ?
Frequency Adverbs come just before main verbs in sentences . When a compound verb-form is used , they come between the auxiliary and the main verb . When there are two auxiliaries, they come after the first auxiliary . Look at these examples :
*He never comes late for work.
*He has never told a lie to anyone .
* He has always been trying to win her favor .
What is the position of the Frequency Ad verbs when the verb is the lexical verb be ?
The lexical verb be takes several forms like is, are, am etc . In English sentences Frequency Adverbs come immediately after the lexical be . Look at these examples :
*Indian women are always committed to their families>
* Mothers are sendom strict with their sons >
Do Frequency Adverbs ever come at the beginning of sentences?
Yes, they do, sometimes . When they are used at the beginning of sentences for emphasis , subject and operator exchange positions . This is called subject-operato inversion .The term operator is used in modern grammar to signify the first auxiliary , or the dummy auxiliary do or the lexical verb be . Look at these examples
* We seldom see a comet .
Seldom do we see a comet .
*He has never seen an elephant .
Never has he seen an elephant .
He was never a trusted friend of mine .
Never was he a trusted friend of mine .
Please note that always is not fronted like other frequency adverbs
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs when modal auxiliaries used to , have ti, and ought to are used ?
Strictly speaking , used to and have to are not modal auxiliaries . They may be called substitute modal auxiliaries . Frequency Adverbs come before these auxiliaries . However, ought to behaves somewhat differently . In conversational English it behaves like used to and have to . but in formal English frequency adverbs come between ought and to as in the sentence "You ought always to mix with good people ".
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
Frequency Adverbs are a group mof adverbs which answer the question: How often?Examples are : never, always, often, seldom , rarely etc . They show similarity in grammatical behavor in sentences .
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs in sentences ?
Frequency Adverbs come just before main verbs in sentences . When a compound verb-form is used , they come between the auxiliary and the main verb . When there are two auxiliaries, they come after the first auxiliary . Look at these examples :
*He never comes late for work.
*He has never told a lie to anyone .
* He has always been trying to win her favor .
What is the position of the Frequency Ad verbs when the verb is the lexical verb be ?
The lexical verb be takes several forms like is, are, am etc . In English sentences Frequency Adverbs come immediately after the lexical be . Look at these examples :
*Indian women are always committed to their families>
* Mothers are sendom strict with their sons >
Do Frequency Adverbs ever come at the beginning of sentences?
Yes, they do, sometimes . When they are used at the beginning of sentences for emphasis , subject and operator exchange positions . This is called subject-operato inversion .The term operator is used in modern grammar to signify the first auxiliary , or the dummy auxiliary do or the lexical verb be . Look at these examples
* We seldom see a comet .
Seldom do we see a comet .
*He has never seen an elephant .
Never has he seen an elephant .
He was never a trusted friend of mine .
Never was he a trusted friend of mine .
Please note that always is not fronted like other frequency adverbs
What is the position of Frequency Adverbs when modal auxiliaries used to , have ti, and ought to are used ?
Strictly speaking , used to and have to are not modal auxiliaries . They may be called substitute modal auxiliaries . Frequency Adverbs come before these auxiliaries . However, ought to behaves somewhat differently . In conversational English it behaves like used to and have to . but in formal English frequency adverbs come between ought and to as in the sentence "You ought always to mix with good people ".
I will continue the discussion in my next post
Thank you
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